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I have no anger at the policeman, and as I have said several times, of course it was an accident. That the officer did not INTEND to hit anyone should be obvious - as it is obvious in every other traffic accident. So why prosecute ANYONE who has an accident? Nobody intends to have them. I have always advocated a very high standard of negligence for accident prosecution. I think that gross negligence should have to be proven, not merely fault. Accidents are part of the risk we take getting on the road, and we shouldn't hold our normal screw-ups against each other. So does this man's actions represent gross negligence? I think it is certainly possible, based on what I understand happened. Would I be upset if it was found not to? No, not if that conclusion was reached by reasonable people in possession of all the facts. That should be the aim of our governmental agencies, and noting that it isn't happening hardly...

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